In my series of posts regarding NT tongues, I have argued
repeatedly that the NT phenomena should be regarded as real languages. To
reinforce that concept, this post will perform an interpretive exercise to see
if it is possible for us to read 1 Corinthians 14 with the view that every time
Paul refers to tongues, he means languages. In fact, many commentators believe
it is unfortunate that English versions are still translating glossolalia as
tongues. Now, the game I propose is that we make an honest effort to understand
every occurrence of tongues in 1 Corinthians 14 to mean languages and determine
if it is possible to make better sense of the verse and the chapter looking
through that interpretive grid. We should remember that the Corinthian believer
would have understood Paul’s instructions and statements much more clearly than
we do. Moreover, there is the tendency in such communication to leave minute
details out because of this presumption of knowledge. We do not have the luxury
of being the in the shoes of the Corinthian believer. Therefore, Paul is likely
to have assumed a certain level of knowledge among the Corinthians that
unfortunately we do not possess.
I also want to suggest that we interpret this NT experience
in light of other NT experiences. Is it possible to understand the phenomena of
tongues as real languages and nothing more without doing damage to the text of
Scripture? In other words, is it safer to interpret Corinthians in light of Acts
2 and 10 without resorting to the practice of inventing an entirely new kind of
tongue that is nowhere else mentioned in Scripture? Is it necessary for us to
invent the PC “prayer language” position in order to give sound and adequate
interpretation to 1 Corinthians 14? From the standpoint of the literary
context, can we glean Paul’s main points in that chapter without inventing the “prayer
language” idea? I believe we can. The best way for you to practice this exercise is to replace tongues with languages and to replace interpret with translate. Remember, resist the urge to return to modern tongues. Glossolalia means languages and diermeneuo means translate. When the Corinthian heard these words, that is the definition that came to mind.
The first text that demands our attention is 1 Cor. 14:2, “For
one who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God; for no one
understands, but in his spirit he
speaks mysteries.” Notice the word “For,” which is an epexegetical. What
this means is that we have to step back at least to the previous verse in order
to understand why the “for” is there for. Paul begins this chapter with the
command to pursue love and desire earnestly spiritual gifts, but especially
that you may prophesy. The reason for this command is that Paul is concerned
with those gifts that edify the body. This is the central concern of 1 Cor. 14.
We must read 1 Cor. 14 with the understanding that Paul’s message to the
Corinthian believer is that they’re goal is to edify one another. Now, with
this understanding in mind, we can recognize that Paul is not describing the
universal practice of tongues in general. He is dealing with tongues in Church.
More than that even, he is specifically dealing with tongues in the Corinthian
worship service. He begins by commanding them to seek out the gifts that edify
and then he says “For” the one who is speaking in this language in your worship
service is not speaking to men (because they can’t understand him) but to God
(because only God can understand him). To miss the epexegetical in this verse
is a serious literary misstep and it results in serious interpretive deviation.
One misses the contextual meaning and significance of what Paul is getting at. This
is reinforced by the next verse, which begins with the logical contrastive “but.”
So we see that it is in fact possible to read 1 Cor. 14:2 with the
understanding that “tongues” in this verse is a real language. Moreover, not
only is it possible, it actually makes better sense than the alternative
non-cessationist interpretation.
Now we turn to v. 4: “One who speaks in a tongue edifies
himself; but one who prophesies edifies the church.” This is not a good thing.
Paul is after the edification of the church. In addition, can we read this as a
real language? I think so. How can someone speaking in this language also engage
in self-edification? The presumption is that they and only they can interpret
it. In this case, edification takes place but only for the individual who is
also interpreting the language. Those who cannot understand the language are
not edified at all. And this is why Paul wants the practice to stop. Notice in
the next verse that Paul makes sure he is guarding against a bad knee-jerk
reaction where the pendulum swings to the other extreme. God gave the gift of
tongues for a very specific reason and it is not to be neglected. What Paul
wants is that it be used in the way God intended. Therefore, we can see how it
is reasonable to interpret this verse to mean real languages.
Paul makes it clear in verse 9 that God is a rational
communicator. He goes on to illustrate that the use of languages that others do
not understand is indeed a waste of time. Others will think we are barbarians,
or foreigners who do not understand our language. Then in v. 12 he once again
restates his main concern, “So also you, since you are zealous of spiritual
gifts, seek to abound for the edification of the church.” This is the
central focus of Paul’s concern. Paul concludes that everyone that prays in
tongues should also pray that they might be able to interpret it, or translate
it. The better word for διερμηνεύω (diermeneuo) is translate. It means to
translate from one language to another. You cannot translate a non-language.
There is nothing to translate. The whole idea is to take what is being said in
one language and translate it into another language. If some speech is
non-language, there is no meaning there to translate. Our English bibles really
should render the word “tongues” as languages and the word “interpret” as
translate. That would go a long way to help mitigate the confusion introduced
by the PC movement on this subject.
Now we come to another Pentecostal favorite in 1 Cor. 14:14,
“For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful.”
The PC movement claims that the purpose for tongues is so that they can pray
directly to God. But can we take this verse to mean the supernatural ability to
speak in a real language? I think we can. If I pray in the spiritual-gifted
language, I don’t do so from my mind but from my spirit. My mind cannot
generate this language because it was not acquired by the mind. Therefore, in
this sense, my mind is unfruitful. What should I seek to do then? I should seek
the gift of translating this language. So, as Paul says in the next verse, “What
is the outcome then? I will pray with
the spirit and I will pray with the mind also; I will sing with the spirit and
I will sing with the mind also.” Paul is saying, I will pray in the gifted
language and I will seek to translate it. Why does Paul speak this way? We
understand why when we read the very next verse; “Otherwise if you bless in
the spirit only, how will the one who
fills the place of the ungifted say the “Amen” at your giving of thanks, since
he does not know what you are saying?” This indicates that v. 15 deals not
with private prayer, but public prayer and the Corinthian must translate any
prayers or songs that he gives in his gifted language(s). That is the principle
theme that continues to occupy Paul’s thought.
Paul then issues the most ignored principle among
Pentecostals-Charismatics in v. 19. He says that he would rather speak 5
intelligible words in Church than ten thousand in the gifted languages so that
others would be edified. I can tell you that PC Churches ignore this statement
completely, arguing that Paul is not talking about the prayer language here,
but rather the gift of tongues, which is different. Such an argument is
completely arbitrary. It is interesting to note that Paul issues a pretty stern
rebuke in v. 20 as one gets the sense that he is very annoyed with this
subject: “Brethren, do not be children in your thinking; yet in evil be
infants, but in your thinking be mature.” It is apparent that Paul thinks
the Corinthians should have been able to figure this out without his
instructions.
We move to verse 22, which is the culmination or summary of Paul’s
argument regarding the use of Tongues in the NT Church. Paul informs us in no
uncertain terms of God’s purpose for tongues: “So then tongues are for a
sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophecy is for a sign, not to unbelievers but to
those who believe.” It is easy to see now how this phenomenon of tongues
had to be divinely gifted languages. There is no way that unintelligible
gibberish could meet the definition of sign. It is simply untenable to contend
that the modern gibberish we witness in the PC movement could be some sort of
sign from God for unbelievers. How could it? Anyone can do it. Non-Christian
pagan religions do it. Anyone can copy it. There is nothing supernatural about
it. It has no distinguishable miraculous features. Therefore, Paul had to be
speaking about a real language in this context. In addition, it is fool-hardy
to attempt to arbitrarily claim here that Paul means the gift of tongues, but
in the previous section he means the prayer language. PC Churches weave their
way back and forth in this chapter, bending the text to mean whatever they need
it to in order to support their modern practice of tongue-speaking. The
Scripture becomes literally, putty in their hands.
We now come to the very next verse, which seems somewhat
confusing and contradictory. Verse 23, “Therefore if the whole church
assembles together and all speak in tongues, and ungifted men or unbelievers
enter, will they not say that you are mad?” The only way to take this is
that Paul means in one sense, men who do not understand the language but in the
other, some men do understand the language. Tongues can only serve as a sign
for those who actually speak that language. So then, tongues are a sign to
unbelievers as was demonstrated in Acts 2. But if men do not understand those
tongues, then they will think you are mad. This is also a response we see in Acts
2. Paul’s point is that everything in the Church should be done with the goal
of edifying the body. Tongues clearly do not do that. Tongues would typically
be used outside the Church service in evangelism of the unbeliever. In this way
it can serve as a sign. In the Church however, you should refrain from such
practices, seeking to edify the other. Tongues are a sign for the unbeliever.
They only edify when they are translated into an intelligible dialect, be it
for the speaker or for the hearer.
I am not so naïve as to think that I have cut a new path
through the maze of the ancient practice of glossolalia. I fully recognize that
my interpretation is not without its difficulties. However, I have yet to
investigate an interpretation of 1 Cor. 14 that was without difficulties. They
are all filled with difficulties. The difficulties are the result of the distance
of time, the distance of culture, and the distance of experience. However, I do
think my interpretation has the following advantages:
·
It allows me to retain the
more descriptive definition of tongues given by Luke in Acts 2.
·
It avoids the arbitrary and
baseless view that invents a new kind of tongue known as the “prayer language.”
·
It does no violence to the
text of 1 Corinthians even if it might leave some things open for discussion.
·
It contains no
contradictions.
·
It retains the basic
purpose of tongues given by Paul in 1 Cor. 14:22 as a sign for unbelievers.
·
It avoids the lack of
distinction between the Christian phenomenon and the pagan parallel.
·
It avoids the conclusion of
linguists that modern PC tongues are no different from tongues in other
non-Christian mystic cults and religions.
From my perspective, it seems only reasonable that we hold
this interpretation until better evidence can be given for why we should
conclude that the tongues in 1 Corinthians were somehow different from the
tongues mentioned in the rest of the NT text. This latter view is
anachronistic, looking at ancient tongues through the grid of modern tongues.
The fact that modern tongues are not real languages in any since of the word is
not a legitimate reason for us to postulate that the same is true of ancient NT
tongues at Corinth. The contrary should be our response. Why it is not is
nothing short of baffling.
If it were true that modern tongues are the heavenly
language mentioned in 1 Cor. 13, then linguists should at least be able to
connect American tongues with Chinese tongues with Russian tongues, and with
all tongues across all dialects. It should be something uniquely differently
even if not entirely explicable. The Russian sounds should be the same as the
Americans and the Chinese and the French and everyone else who speaks in
tongues. The reason is that heaven has only one language. Moreover, that
language is rational the same as our own. Man was created speaking that
language if you remember. It wasn’t until the curse at Babel that that changed.
No matter how you slice it, modern PC tongues is remarkably different from what
was witnessed and experienced in the NT Church.
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